The UN definition of genocide:
“ ... any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnic, racial or religious group, as such:
(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
(d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.”
Israel has and is currently committing part (a), killing substantial number of Palestinians, the majority of them civilians with no connections to the attack on Israel.
Israel fulfills part (b) because it has and is causing serious bodily harm by using heavyweight bombs that kill and maim. The number of civilians with serious loss of limbs and other injuries numbers well over 75,000.
Part (c) is ongoing as Israel limits aid distribution and attempts to starve Palestinians to death.
One can argue that Part (d) is being carried out because over 70% of the civilian casualties re women (so no future children) and children.
The only part Israel has not done is forcibly transfer children, but the definition does not call for all five elements to be present for genocide to be occurring. It defines any one of these actions to be genocide. Just because Israel hasn’t murdered all Palestinians in Gaza yet does not mean that they are innocent of genocide.
I happen to believe that Israelis AND Palestinians have a right to live in peace, but Israelis cannot achieve their peace by murdering innocent civilians and denying them the right to self-governance and their own freedom from Israel’s yoke of oppression.
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